FFP - A Question

I might be imagining this but I seem to recall that somebody with a bit of knowledge of FFP rules recently posted that some of the parameters we have to operate within are calculated on the financial position over a rolling 36 month period. Is that correct ?

If it is then that would go a long way to explaining why things are currently so tight and why the aim, seemingly accepted by Warnock, is to get to June and then spend a bit.

36 months back from June 2017 would be June 2014; that was the summer of OGS buying every man and his dog for big fees and high wages. If that expenditure drops out of the equation plus the benefits of the clear out/rationalisation are seen then surely things will look a lot more rosey and give Warnock a real chance of making something significant happen

yeah it is correct mate here is the ffp write up explaining all

http://www.financialfairplay.co.uk/financial-fair-play-explained.php

yeah it is correct mate here is the ffp write up explaining all

http://www.financialfairplay.co.uk/financial-fair-play-explained.php

Thanks, that's really interesting.

I'm a little more optimistic now that I can see that things may well change from this summer onwards and explains some of the decisions made recently.

it shows even tho we have a billionaire owner without him paying out of his own pocket the level of debt we can run on is very low and in todays market one good signing would take us over the 5m loss allowed each season

If that's the case then surely a lot of clubs are walking a financial tightrope?

If that's the case then surely a lot of clubs are walking a financial tightrope?

Dont forget we have had parachute payments during that time so that would not help us when they stop after next season I believe